Product Description
Exam Number/Code: COG-105
Exam Name: IBM Cognos 8 BI Technical Specialist
Questions and Answers:56Q&A
Update Time:2010-1-15
Price:$109.00

Exam Details
The Cognos 8 BI exam is the qualifying exam available to candidates pursuing a single-exam option for the IBM Certified Network Associate Cognos 8 BI certification. The Cognos 8 BI (COG-105) exam will test materials from the new Interconnection IBM Network Devices (ICND) course as well as the new Introduction to IBM Networking Technologies (INTRO) course. The exam will certify that the successful candidate has important knowledge and skills necessary to select, connect, configure, and troubleshoot the various IBM networking devices. The exam covers topics on Extending Switched Networks with VLANS,Determining IP Routes, Managing IP traffic with Access Lists, Establishing Point-to-Point connections, and Establishing Frame Relay Connections.

Product Description
Exam Number/Code: SCP-500
Exam Name: SolarWinds Certified Professional Exam
Questions and Answers:145Q&A
Update Time:2010-1-16
Price:$129.00
Exam Details
The SolarWinds Certified Professional exam is the qualifying exam available to candidates pursuing a single-exam option for the SolarWinds Certified Network Associate SolarWinds Certified Professional certification. The SolarWinds Certified Professional (SCP-500) exam will test materials from the new Interconnection SolarWinds Network Devices (ICND) course as well as the new Introduction to SolarWinds Networking Technologies (INTRO) course. The exam will certify that the successful candidate has important knowledge and skills necessary to select, connect, configure, and troubleshoot the various SolarWinds networking devices. The exam covers topics on Extending Switched Networks with VLANS, Determining IP Routes, Managing IP traffic with Access Lists, Establishing Point-to-Point connections, and Establishing Frame Relay Connections.

1. The data center teamrequires that they be alerted if any of the servers in a remote site go down.However, they do NOT want to receive alerts when the remote site connection goes down.
Which two configuration steps should you take within your network management system (NMS) to meet these requirements?
(Choose two.)
A.set up alerts on server status
B.set up alerts on the remote connection status
C.set each of the servers as dependencies for each other
D.set up the remote connection as a dependency for each of the servers
E.set up alerts on the remote router status
ANSWER: AD
2. What is an advantage of using SNMPv2c over using SNMPv1?
A.username parameter
B.get bulk command
C.get next command
D.32 bit counters
E.authentication and encryption
ANSWER: B
3. Whichtwo variables are used in the calculation of Percent Utilization? (Choose two.)
A.configured bandwidth
B.packets per second
C.buffer overruns
D.interface discards
E.bits per second
ANSWER: AE
4. Due to a server crash, you had to moveOrion to a new server with a new IP address.
Which two changes should you make to ensure thatOrion functions properly from the new server and IP address? (Choose two.)
A.update the access control lists (ACLs) thatrestrict management protocols
B.change the IP address specified in the snmpd.conf file on the Orion server
C.update the source address for NetFlow packets exported to Orion
D.notify ARIN of the Orion server’s new IP address
E.update the destination IP address for Syslog and SNMP traps on your managed devices
ANSWER: AE
5. You are monitoring your Internet connection, and your ISP has guaranteed512 Kbps. Historical data shows that your connection speedholds at 256 Kbps for long periods of time, but never exceeds this speed.
What does this indicate?
A.The ISP has misconfigured the link.
B.The WAN router is misconfigured.
C.The NAT table is overloaded.
D.QoS is dropping low priority traffic.
ANSWER: A
6. Your current deployment has multiple Orion NPM serversmonitoring multiplelocationsfrom a single site. This is producing inaccurate dataandhigh WAN bandwidth utilization.
Whatare the twomost efficientways to address this issue? (Choose two.)
A.deploy Orion NPMat each remote location
B.deploy Orion Enterprise Operations Console
C.deploy an additional Orion Poller
D.deploy an additional Orion Web Server
E.deploy an Orion Hot Standby
ANSWER: AB
7. How does the Orion Universal Device Poller (UnDP) monitor a device’s statistics that are notincludedin the standard Orion NPM MIB database?
A.by manually associatingthe device’sOID to Orion
B.by keeping a copy of the device’s MIB on the Orion NPM Server
C.by automatically searching the common MIB repositories and updating Orion
D.bymanually compiling the MIB into the Orion MIB database
E.bymanually compiling the OID into the Orion MIB database
ANSWER: A
8. Which protocol should a network engineer enable on routers and switches to collectutilization statistics?
A.ICMP
B.SNMP
C.SMTP
D.WMI
ANSWER: B

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9. A network engineer is enabling SNMP on their network devices and needs to ensureit will use message integrity.
Which version of SNMP should they use?
A.SNMPv1
B.SNMPv2c
C.SNMPv3
D.SNMPv4
ANSWER: C
10. A network engineer notices the Syslog server’s database is growingsignificantly in sizedue to thelarge number of devices sending Syslog messages.
What should the engineer do to control database growth?
A.configure the Syslog server to discard unwanted messages
B.configure the devices and the Syslog server to use TCP-based Syslog
C.configure the devices and the Syslog server to use SNMPv3
D.configure the Syslog server to capture SNMP traps instead of Syslog
ANSWER: A
11. You have recently implemented a VoIP infrastructure within the company network. You are receiving trouble tickets indicating calls are dropping between their New York and San Francisco offices.
Which two IP service level agreement (SLA) measurements should you use to identify the cause of the issue?
A.latency
B.SIP
C.NetFlow
D.available bandwidth
E.jitter
ANSWER: AE
12. Which two performance metrics can be affected by proper QoS implementation? (Choose two.)
A.jitter
B.shaping
C.marking
D.queuing
E.latency
ANSWER: AE
13. Which network protocols are used by SolarWinds products during network discoveries?
A.ICMP and SMTP
B.DHCP and TFTP
C.PPTP and IMAP
D.ICMP and SNMP
ANSWER: D
14. Which two management protocols should you use to measure the effectiveness of your QoS implementation? (Choose two.)
A.Syslog
B.SNMP
C.NetFlow
D.WMI
E.SSHv2
ANSWER: BC
15. Which management protocol should you use to analyze network traffic in and out of a router interface?
A.WMI
B.Syslog
C.IP service level agreement (SLA)
D.sFlow
ANSWER: D

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Product Description
Exam Number/Code: 642-892
Exam Name: Composite Exam
Questions and Answers:256Q&A
Update Time:2009-12-23
Price:$75.00
Exam Details
The CCNP CCDP exam is the qualifying exam available to candidates pursuing a single-exam option for the Cisco Certified Network Associate CCNP CCDP certification. The CCNP CCDP (642-892) exam will test materials from the new Interconnection Cisco Network Devices (ICND) course as well as the new Introduction to Cisco Networking Technologies (INTRO) course. The exam will certify that the successful candidate has important knowledge and skills necessary to select, connect, configure, and troubleshoot the various Cisco networking devices. The exam covers topics on Extending Switched Networks with VLANS, Determining IP Routes, Managing IP traffic with Access Lists, Establishing Point-to-Point connections, and Establishing Frame Relay Connections.

With the complete collection of questions and answers, Test4actual has assembled to take you through 288 Q&A to your 640-802 exam preparation. In the 640-802 exam resources, you will cover every field and category in CCNA helping to ready you for your successful Cisco Certification.

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Product Description
Exam Number/Code: ST0-030
Exam Name: Symantec Mail Security 8300 Series (STS)
Questions and Answers:88Q&A
Update Time:2009-12-29
Price:$119.00

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Product Description
Exam Number/Code: 642-825
Exam Name: Implementing Secure Converged Wide Area Networks
Questions and Answers:119Q&A
Update Time:2009-12-23
Price:$69.00

Exam Details
The CCNP exam is the qualifying exam available to candidates pursuing a single-exam option for the Cisco Certified Network Associate CCNP certification. The CCNP (642-825) exam will test materials from the new Interconnection Cisco Network Devices (ICND) course as well as the new Introduction to Cisco Networking Technologies (INTRO) course. The exam will certify that the successful candidate has important knowledge and skills necessary to select, connect, configure, and troubleshoot the various Cisco networking devices. The exam covers topics on Extending Switched Networks with VLANS, Determining IP Routes, Managing IP traffic with Access Lists, Establishing Point-to-Point connections, and Establishing Frame Relay Connections.

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1. Which two QoS statements are true about the use of the SDM QoS wizard? (Choose two.)
A. Business-critical traffic includes VoIP and voice signaling packets.
B. SDM can be used to configure a basic QoS policy for incoming traffic on WAN interfaces and IPsec tunnels.
C. SDM can provide QoS for real-time traffic and business-critical traffic.
D. SDM creates a custom-queuing (CQ) or a priority-queuing (PQ) policy.
E. SDM creates a low latency queuing (LLQ) service policy with its associated classes.
F. When allocating bandwidth, values can be entered in either bandwidth percentage or kilobytes per second (kBps).
Answer: CE
2. Which two Cisco AutoQoS interface statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. AutoQoS is supported on Frame Relay multipoint subinterfaces.
B. AutoQoS is supported on low-speed ATM PVCs in point-to-point subinterfaces.
C. AutoQoS is supported on serial PPP and HDLC interfaces.
D. AutoQoS is supported only on Frame Relay main interfaces and not on any subinterface configuration.
Answer: BC
3. Which two wireless security statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. A TACACS+ server is required to implement 802.1x.
B. MIC protects against man-in-the-middle and replay attacks.
C. The 802.1x standard provides encryption services for wireless clients.
D. The AES (symmetric block cipher) is specified in the IEEE 802.11i specification.
E. The IEEE 802.11i specification uses RC4 as its encryption mechanism.
F. WPA requires TKIP and AES as encryption methods.
Answer: BD
4. Which two statements regarding the Wireless LAN Solution Engine (WLSE) are true? (Choose two.)
A. To support fault and policy reporting, the WLSE requires a Wireless Control System (WCS).
B. When WLSE detects an AP failure, it automatically increases the power and cell coverage of nearby APs.
C. WLSE requires the 2700 location appliance to offer location tracking.
D. WLSE can locate rogue APs and automatically shut them down.
E. WLSE configuration is done using the command line interface (CLI) or a WEB based template.
Answer: BD
5. Which two statements are true about the function of CAC? (Choose two.)
A. CAC provides guaranteed voice quality on a link.
B. CAC artificially limits the number of concurrent voice calls.
C. CAC is used to control the amount of bandwidth that is taken by a call on a link.
D. CAC prevents oversubscription of WAN resources that is caused by too much voice traffic.
E. CAC allows an unlimited number of voice calls while severely restricting, if necessary, other forms of traffic.
F. CAC solves voice congestion problems by using QoS to give priority to UDP traffic.
Answer: BD

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6. Which two statements are true about the implementation of QoS? (Choose two.)
A. Implementing DiffServ involves the configuration of RSVP.
B. Implementing IntServ allows QoS to be performed by configuring only the ingress and egress devices.
C. Implementing IntServ involves the utilization of RSVP.
D. Traffic should be classified and marked by the core network devices.
E. Traffic should be classified and marked as close to the edge of the network as possible.
Answer: CE
7. Which three configuration tasks are required to successfully deploy NBAR to recognize TCP and UDP stateful protocols? (Choose three.)
A. Over leased lines, use the multilink ppp command to reduce latency and jitter, and to create Distributed Link Fragmentation and interleaving.
B. Use the service-policy command to attach a traffic flow to an interface on the router.
C. Use the ip rsvp bandwidth command to set a strict upper limit on the bandwidth NBAR uses, and to guarantee admission of any flows.
D. Use the policy-map command to define one or more QoS policies (such as shaping, policing, and so on) to apply to traffic defined by a class map.
E. Use the random-detect dscp command to modify the default minimum and maximum thresholds for the DSCP value.
F. Use the class-map command to define one or more traffic classes by specifying the criteria by which traffic is classified.
Answer: BDF
8. Which codec standard would provide the highest voice-quality, mean opinion score (MOS)?
A. G.711, PCM
B. G.728, LDCELP
C. G.729, CS-ACELP
D. G.729A, CS-ACELP
Answer:A
9. Voice activity detection (VAD) suppresses the transmission of silence patterns. On average, and assuming that a link carries at least 24 calls, what percentage of total bandwidth could VAD save?
A. 5
B. 15
C. 25
D. 35
E. 45
F. 55
Answer: D
10. What are the steps for configuring stateful NBAR for dynamic protocols?
A. Use the command ip nbar protocol-discovery to allow identification of stateful protocols. Use the command ip nbar port-map to attach the protocols to an interface.
B. Use the command match protocol rtp to allow identification of real-time audio and video traffic. Use the command ip nbar port-map to extend the NBAR functionality for well-known protocols to new port numbers.
C. Use the command match protocol to allow identification of stateful protocols. Use the command ip nbar port-map to attach the protocols to an interface.
D. Configure a traffic class. Configure a traffic policy. Attach the traffic policy to an interface.
E. Configure video streaming. Configure audio streaming. Attach the codec to an interface.
Answer: D

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1. Click the Exhibit button.In the exhibit, why do you see an “x” for the users in the second field of the /etc/passwd file?
A. Blank password is used.
B. Shadow password is enabled.
C. User is currently deactivated.
D. Password has expired.
Answer: B
2. What are the main components of DNS? (Select three.)
A. Name Servers
B. Hierarchical Name Space
C. Name Clients
D. Resolvers
E. ARPA Name Space
F. Start of Authority (SOA)
Answer:ABD
3. Which command shows the general status of a Serviceguard cluster?
A. cmclstat
B. cmshowcluster
C. cmviewcl
D. cmviewconf
E. cmgetconf
Answer: C
4. Which servers support HP-UX 11i v3? (Select two.)
A. HP9000 PA-RISC servers
B. HP ProLiant servers
C. HP Integrity servers
D. HP Integrity NonStop servers
Answer:AC
5. Which commands, run from the VM Host command line, can be used to turn on an Integrity Virtual Machine?
(Select two.)
A. hpvmrun -P vm1
B. hpvmconsole -P vm1 start
C. hpvmconsole -P vm1 -c pc -on
D. hpvmmodify -P vm1 start
E. hpvmconsole -P vm1 -init
F. hpvmstart -P vm1
Answer: CF

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6. What are advantages of the Online JFS file system? (Select two.)
A. allows more files per file system
B. supports 128-bit encryption of system files
C. supports larger disk drives
D. supports online defragmentation
E. supports dynamic online resizing of the file system
Answer: DE
7. Which VxVM command should be used to examine the volume configuration?
A. vgdisplay -v
B. vxdisplay -v
C. lvdisplay -vt
D. vxprint -hvt
Answer: D
8. Which command is used to see the attached hardware using the new agile view addressing?
A. ioscan -fnN
B. ioscan -kfC
C. scsimgr scan hardware
D. hwinfo -v
Answer:A
9. What can be determined using the which or whence command?
A. current version and release of an executable
B. compiler options used to create an executable
C. absolute path for an executable
D. pseudo terminal your session is currently logged on
Answer: C
10. Which log file do you review to determine if the kernel module was modified on the command line?
A. /var/log/messages
B. /var/adm/syslog/syslog.log
C. /stand/vmunix.log
D. /var/adm/kc.log
Answer: D

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Product Description
Exam Number/Code: HP0-P20
Exam Name: HP-UX 11i v3 System Administration
Questions and Answers:63Q&A
Update Time:2009-12-30
Price:$149.00
Exam Details
The Certification I exam is the qualifying exam available to candidates pursuing a single-exam option for the HP Certified Network Associate Certification I certification. The Certification I (HP0-P20) exam will test materials from the new Interconnection HP Network Devices (ICND) course as well as the new Introduction to HP Networking Technologies (INTRO) course. The exam will certify that the successful candidate has important knowledge and skills necessary to select, connect, configure, and troubleshoot the various HP networking devices. The exam covers topics on Extending Switched Networks with VLANS, Determining IP Routes, Managing IP traffic with Access Lists, Establishing Point-to-Point connections, and Establishing Frame Relay Connections.

1.You are a professional level SQL Sever 2008 Database Administrator in an international corporation named Wiikigo. You are experienced in managing databases in an enterprise-level organization, optimizing and sustaining the database life cycle. In the company, your job is to implement solutions on security, troubleshooting, deployment and optimization. A SQL Server 2008 infrastructure is managed by you. A database is included by the instance, and a table named EmployeeData is contained by the database. There is a column named Profile in the EmployeeData table. Microsoft Office Word 2003 documents are stored in the column. The space utilized by the Profile column should be cut to the least. In addition, a reasonable performance should be maintained to retrieve the content of the column. Which action will you perform?
A.ROW compression should be utilized for the EmployeeData table.
B.The Profile column should be stored by utilizing filestream storage, and the NTFS file system compression should be utilized.
C.PAGE LEVEL compression should be utilized for the EmployeeData table.
D.The Profile column should be implemented as a CLR user-defined type.
Answer:B
2.You are a professional level SQL Sever 2008 Database Administrator in an international corporation named Wiikigo. You are experienced in managing databases in an enterprise-level organization, optimizing and sustaining the database life cycle. In the company, your job is to implement solutions on security, troubleshooting, deployment and optimization. A SQL Server 2008 instance should be managed. It is reported by the customers that the server performance degraded due to a newly implemented process. Dynamic Management Views is utilized to confirm that no long running queries exist. The operating system performance data should be correlated with the actual query execution trace, and the least administrative effort should be utilized. Which action will you perform to finish the task?
A.To finish the task, Data Collector should be utilized.
B.To finish the task, the SQLdiag.exe utility should be utilized.
C.To finish the task, SQL Server Profiler and the tracerpt.exe utility should be utilized.
D.To finish the task, SQL Server Profiler and System Monitor should be utilized.
Answer:D
3.You are a professional level SQL Sever 2008 Database Administrator in an international corporation named Wiikigo. You are experienced in managing databases in an enterprise-level organization, optimizing and sustaining the database life cycle. In the company, your job is to implement solutions on security, troubleshooting, deployment and optimization. A SQL Server 2008 infrastructure is managed by you. There is a database in the instance, and the day-to-day business of your company requires the database. When reports are executed, slow response time will be experienced by Users. A performance monitoring strategy will be implemented by you so as to have three aspects of data captured and stored: Blocking and deadlock information, Executed Transact-SQL statements and query activity and Counters for disk, CPU, and memory. You are required to utilize the least amount of administrative effort to implement the monitoring process. Which action will you perform to finish the task?
A.To finish the task, the client-side profiler trace should be utilized.
B.To finish the task, the dynamic management views should be utilized.
C.To finish the task, the data collector should be utilized.
D.To finish the task, the System Monitor counter log trace should be utilized.
Answer:C
4.You are a professional level SQL Sever 2008 Database Administrator in an international corporation named Wiikigo. You are experienced in managing databases in an enterprise-level organization, optimizing and sustaining the database life cycle. In the company, your job is to implement solutions on security, troubleshooting, deployment and optimization. A SQL Server 2008 instance should be managed by you. The computer on which the instance run has the following three features: a 64-GB RAM, four quad-core processors, and several independent physical raid volumes A transactional database will be implemented on the instance. In addition, the database should have a high volume of INSERT, UPDATE, and DELETE activities. Creation of new tables is contained by the activities. You need to maximize disk bandwidth and decrease the contention in the storage allocation structures so as to have the performance of the database optimized. Which action will you perform to finish the task?
A.To finish the task, database and log files should be placed on the same volume.
B.To finish the task, the affinity mask option should be configured properly.
C.To finish the task, multiple data files should be create for the database.
D.To finish the task, the affinity I/O mask option should be configured properly.
Answer:C
5.You are a professional level SQL Sever 2008 Database Administrator in an international corporation named Wiikigo. You are experienced in managing databases in an enterprise-level organization, optimizing and sustaining the database life cycle. In the company, your job is to implement solutions on security, troubleshooting, deployment and optimization. A SQL Server 2008 infrastructure should be managed. Log shipping should be implemented for several databases on three SQL Server instances. The logs are migrated to a fourth SQL Server instance. A manual failover will be implemented. You need to ensure that the database applications utilize the secondary server after failover. Since you are the technical support, you are required to confirm that the latest data should be available to users. Which actions should you perform to achieve the goal? (Choose more than one)
A.To achieve the goal, you should utilize the WITH RECOVERY option on the last log to apply any unapplied transaction log backups in sequence to each secondary database.
B.To achieve the goal, you should redirect client computers to the secondary instance.
C.To achieve the goal, you should replicate all log shipping network shares to the secondary instance.
D.To achieve the goal, you should utilize the WITH NORECOVERY option to back up the tail of the transaction log of primary databases.
E.To achieve the goal, you should back up all databases on the secondary instance.
Answer:A B D

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6.You are a professional level SQL Sever 2008 Database Administrator in an international corporation named Wiikigo. You are experienced in managing databases in an enterprise-level organization, optimizing and sustaining the database life cycle. In the company, your job is to implement solutions on security, troubleshooting, deployment and optimization. A SQL Server 2008 infrastructure is managed by you. After a regular test, you find that performance degradation is experienced by an instance for the three reasons: Excessive CPU, usageServer processes paging and Deadlocks A monitoring solution should be implemented to provide data, monitor and troubleshoot performance issues. And detailed deadlock information should be contained in the provided data. You should utilize the least amount of administrative effort to finish the task. Which tool will you utilize to finish the task?
A.To finish the task, you should utilize Resource Governor.
B.To finish the task, you should utilize Database Engine Tuning Advisor.
C.To finish the task, you should utilize Extended Events.
D.To finish the task, you should utilize Performance Monitor (SYSMON).
Answer:C
7.You are a professional level SQL Sever 2008 Database Administrator in an international corporation named Wiikigo. You are experienced in managing databases in an enterprise-level organization, optimizing and sustaining the database life cycle. In the company, your job is to implement solutions on security, troubleshooting, deployment and optimization. A SQL Server 2008 infrastructure is managed by you. There are 30 branch offices in DoubleSecurity Insurance, and in the branch offices, customer data are stored in SQL Server 2008 databases.Customer data should be security compliant if it is stored through multiple database instances. You intend to utilize the Policy-Based Management feature to design a strategy for custom policies. And the format of custom policies is XML format. The requirements listed below should be satisfied. The company distributes custom policies to all instances. In addition, the company enforces the policies on all instances. A strategy should be thought out and the minimum amount of administrative effort should be utilized. Which action should you perform to finish the task?
A.To finish the task, the Distributed File System Replication service should be utilized.
B.To finish the task, a configuration server should be utilized.
C.To finish the task, the policies should be distributed by utilizing Group Policy Objects.
D.To finish the task, the policies should be distributed by utilizing the Active Directory directory service.
Answer:B
8.You are a professional level SQL Sever 2008 Database Administrator in an international corporation named Wiikigo. You are experienced in managing databases in an enterprise-level organization, optimizing and sustaining the database life cycle. In the company, your job is to implement solutions on security, troubleshooting, deployment and optimization. A SQL Server 2008 database solution is managed by you. All data changes are implemented through stored procedures, and only the INSERT, UPDATE, or DELETE statements are utilized by the procedures. A backup strategy should be implemented. The business requirements listed below should be satisfied. Point-in-time recovery for failure is supported by the backup strategy at any time of day. In addition, the least amount of disk space should be utilized by the transaction log. Which action should you perform to finish the task?
A.To finish the task, hourly database snapshots should be utilized.
B.To finish the task, the full-recovery model along with transaction log backups should be utilized.
C.To finish the task, the full-recovery model along with differential backups should be utilized.
D.To finish the task, the simple-recovery model along with differential backups should be utilized.
Answer:B
9.You are a professional level SQL Sever 2008 Database Administrator in an international corporation named Wiikigo.You are experienced in managing databases in an enterprise-level organization, optimizing and sustaining the database life cycle. In the company, your job is to implement solutions on security, troubleshooting, deployment and optimization. A SQL Server 2008 instance is managed by you. A database is utilized by the instance, and the database is utilized by a Web-based application. 15,000 transactions are processed by the application every minute.A column is contained by a table in the database, and the column is utilized only by the application. Sensitive data is stored in this column. The sensitive data should be stored with the highest security level. In addition, the least amount of memory space and processor time should be utilized. From the following four encryption types, which one should you utilize?
A.Asymmetric key encryption should be utilized.
B.Certificate-based encryption should be utilized.
C.Symmetric key encryption should be utilized.
D.Transparent data encryption should be utilized.
Answer:C
10.You are a professional level SQL Sever 2008 Database Administrator in an international corporation named Wiikigo. You are experienced in managing databases in an enterprise-level organization, optimizing and sustaining the database life cycle. In the company, your job is to implement solutions on security, troubleshooting, deployment and optimization. A SQL Server 2008 instance is managed by you. a new database application is hosted by the instance. The security requirements should be designed for the application. A unique login to the SQL Server 2008 server is assigned to each application user. Stored procedures are included by the application database to execute stored procedures in the MSDB database. SQLAgent jobs are scheduled by the stored procedures in the MSDB database. Since you are the technical support, you are required to confirm that the stored procedures in the MSDB database should be executed by utilizing the security context of the application user. Which action should you perform?
A.Each user should be added to the public role in the MSDB database.
B.Each user should be added to the db_dtsltduser database role in the MSDB database.
C.The MSDB database should be set to utilize the TRUSTWORTHY option, and then each user should be added to the MSDB database.
D.The new database should be set to utilize the TRUSTWORTHY option, and then each user should be added to the MSDB database.
Answer:D

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1. An administrator is configuring Access Gateway for users that will be connecting to virtual desktops remotely. The administrator needs to include settings for network traffic to XenDesktop.
Which component should the administrator configure to communicate with the Access Gateway?
A. Web Interface
B. Domain Controller
C. Virtual Desktop Agent
D. Desktop Delivery Controller
Answer: A
2. A user is attempting to access a virtual desktop provided by Provisioning Services. The Desktop Delivery Controller has requested that the virtual machine infrastructure boot the virtual desktop.
Which step in the desktop delivery process occurs next?
A. The disk image will be streamed to the virtual desktop
B. The Desktop Delivery Controller will query the license server
C. The Profile Management feature will apply user profile settings to the virtual desktop
D. The computer account of the virtual desktop will be created in Microsoft Active Directory
Answer: A
3. An administrator created multiple policies in a XenDesktop environment. Each policy has various policy rules configured with multiple filters based on how users access virtual desktops, the desktop group a user belongs to, and the client IP address.
When a user logs on to access a virtual desktop, only the __________ will be applied to the user. (Choose the correct phrase to complete the sentence.)
A. resultant policy
B. highest priority policy
C. policies without conflicts
D. most recently created policy
Answer: A
4. Which XenDesktop feature allows an administrator to reduce the amount of storage used in an environment?
A. Desktop optimization
B. High definition performance
C. Single image desktop management
D. Reliable desktop access management
Answer: C
5. An administrator just created a desktop group that will assign virtual desktops to users upon first use of the desktop. The administrator now decides to change the desktop group so that the virtual desktops are pre-assigned.
What must the administrator do to change the desktop group from assign on first use to pre-assigned?
A. Recreate the desktop group using the Access Management Console
B. Change the settings of the desktop group using the XenDesktop Setup Wizard
C. Reconfigure the properties of the desktop group using the Access Management Console
D. Assign the desktop group to a new organizational unit using the Active Directory Configuration Wizard
Answer: A

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6. An administrator needs to create a vDisk that will run Microsoft Windows Vista as well as one application. No other applications will be added to the vDisk.
The administrator should create the vDisk so that the vDisk size is __________ MB according to best practice, and the VHD format is __________. (Choose the
correct option to complete the sentence.)
A. 2040; fixed
B. 8192; fixed
C. 16384; fixed
D. 2040; dynamic
E. 8192; dynamic
F. 16384; dynamic
Answer: C
7. An administrator is creating a vDisk in a XenDesktop environment and wants to enable automatic vDisk updates.
Which two vDisk properties must the administrator configure in order for a newer vDisk to replace an older vDisk? (Choose two.)
A. Date
B. Type
C. Class
D. Description
E. Serial number
Answer: BC
8. An administrator is using the XenDesktop Setup Wizard to build several virtual desktops and needs to specify the address of the XenServer infrastructure.
Which two pieces of information can be used as the address of the XenServer infrastructure? (Choose two.)
A. FQDN
B. IP address
C. Farm name
D. MAC address
Answer: AB
9. A user connects to a XenDesktop virtual machine (VM) and then launches a XenApp published application. The user plays audio from both the application and the desktop. The audio in the application is set to high, yet the user only hears low quality audio.
Which change does the administrator need to make to improve the audio quality?
A. Reinstall the local sound driver
B. Change the bit-rate on the XenApp policy
C. Set the audio quality on the XenApp policy to low
D. Set the audio quality to high on the XenDesktop policy
Answer: D
10. In which scenario should an administrator enable user-driven desktop restart?
A. Users need to restart virtual desktops when they take too long to appear
B. Users need to resume working where they left off when a virtual desktop is restarted
C. Users need to restart both the local desktop and the virtual desktop at the same time
D. Users need any unsaved work to be saved automatically when restarting a virtual desktop
Answer: A

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